Encyclopedia of Dogmatic Theology

Our Creed in the Perpetual Virginity of the Virgin

Our Theology:
Our Creed in the Perpetual Virginity of the Virgin

The topic of the perpetual virginity of the Virgin is a very old subject; the Fathers of the Church spoke about it since the second and third centuries AD, and also the Fathers of the fourth and fifth centuries spoke about it. And previously in 1962 we translated an article by Saint Jerome (Hieronymus) in which he defended the perpetual virginity of the Virgin against a man called Helvidius in the year 383 AD, and all the opinions that Protestants currently rely on do not go beyond the opinions of this same Helvidius.

Summary of the opinions of those who attack the perpetual virginity of the Virgin

1. The phrase “her firstborn son” (Luke 2:7; Matt 1:25), believing that “firstborn” means the first among his brothers.

2. The phrase “your wife” which was said to Joseph the carpenter about the Virgin (Matt 1:20), the word woman (or wife) generally whenever it is applied to the Virgin (Matt 1:24).

3. The phrase “she was found to be with child before they came together,” and also “before they came together she was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit” (Matt 1:18).

4. The verses in which the phrase “his brothers” occurs about the Lord Jesus, such as (Matt 12:46; John 2:12; Matt 13:54–56; Mark 6:1–3; Acts 1:14; Gal 1:18–19).

With God’s help we will answer all these objections:

1 — “Her firstborn son”
The firstborn son is the son born first, according to the translation of this word into English “Firstborn,” and the Holy Scripture clarified the definition of the meaning of the firstborn, for divine revelation says, before the establishment of the Aaronic priesthood: “Sanctify to me every firstborn, whatever opens the womb among the children of Israel, both of man and of beast: it is mine.” (Exodus 13:2).
So every opener of the womb became holy to the Lord, set apart for the Lord, whether he was born after him another son or not. His parents would not wait, if he was human, or his owners if he was of the animals, until brothers were born to him (so that he becomes firstborn by them!!) and then dedicate him to the Lord. Rather from his birth he becomes holy to the Lord, not because he is greater than his brothers, but because he opened the womb. And thus it is very possible that the firstborn son is the only son.
Thus our Lord Jesus Christ was the firstborn son, and he was the only son, and Saint Jerome was truthful when he said: every only son is a firstborn, but not every firstborn is an only son. The expression “firstborn” does not indicate a person who others were born after him, but refers to one who has none before him…
Therefore the firstborn of unclean animals was accepted as redemption, from the son of a month (Numbers 18:16–17). The firstborn of clean animals was offered as an offering to the Lord. And they did not wait until children were born after him. He is firstborn even if no one was born after him, because he opened the womb.
Thus the Lord Jesus — as the firstborn of the Virgin — they offered a sacrifice for him on the fortieth day (the day of the purification of the Virgin after her childbirth). And on this the Holy Scripture says about the Lady the Virgin: “And when the days of their purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem to present him to the Lord; (as it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that opens the womb shall be called holy to the Lord;) And to offer a sacrifice according to that which is said in the law of the Lord, A pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons.” (Luke 2:22–24).
It is clear that the Lord Jesus was subjected to the law of the firstborn on the fortieth day of his birth. And of course there is no relation here between the firstborn and the birth of other brothers…
Here Saint Jerome asks: When the Lord struck the firstborn of Egypt, did He strike only those firstborn who had brothers, or all openers of the womb whether they had brothers or not?!..

2 — The phrase “your wife”
The phrase “your wife” means your wife. It used to be applied to the woman from the time of her betrothal. In explaining the angel’s words to Joseph the carpenter: “Fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.” (Matt 1:20),
Saint John Chrysostom says: “Here he calls the betrothed wife, as the custom of Scripture is to call betrothed persons spouses even before marriage.” And he also says: “What does the phrase ‘take to thee’ mean? It means to keep her in your house… as one who has been entrusted to you by God and not by her parents. Because she was entrusted to you not for marriage, but that she may live with you, as Christ himself later entrusted John his disciple with her.” (Commentary on Matthew, Homily 4:11).
Saint Jerome also says that the appellation “woman” or “wife” was also given to betrothed women. He adduces the Scripture: “If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her; Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die…” (Deut 22:23–24; cf. Deut 20:7).
Here the Scripture used the word “woman” for the betrothed virgin, and the word “woman” indicates femininity, not marriage.
And in fact Eve was first named Woman because she was taken out of Man (Gen 2:23). She was named Eve because she is the mother of all living (Gen 3:20).
So the word woman indicates her creation and femininity. And the word Eve indicates her motherhood.
Proof that the word “woman” regarding the Virgin meant her betrothal and not her marriage is the Evangelist Luke’s statement: “And Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judea, unto the city of David, which is called Bethlehem; (because he was of the house and lineage of David:) To be taxed with Mary his espoused wife, being great with child.” (Luke 2:4–5).
Therefore the phrase: “Fear not to take Mary your wife” means your betrothed…
So Mary was called woman not because she lost her virginity, God forbid. The Scripture testifies that he did not know her. But she was so called, because this is the usual expression among the Jews, that the betrothed is called woman. Indeed the female was called woman. As evidenced that Eve immediately after her creation was called Woman, before the fall and the expulsion from Paradise and childbirth…
We note that the angel did not use the term woman with Joseph after the birth of Christ. Rather he said to him: “Arise, and take the young child and his mother, and flee into Egypt” (Matt 2:13). And on his return from Egypt he said to him: “Arise, and take the young child and his mother” (Matt 2:20). And Joseph acted thus in the journey to Egypt and in the return: “He arose, and took the young child and his mother” (Matt 2:14, 21). He did not use the term woman.
The expression “your wife” was used before and during the pregnancy so that he would preserve Mary so that the Jews would not stone her because she had conceived and was not a wife to a man. But after the birth of Christ, the divine revelation did not use this expression, neither in the angel’s speech to Joseph, nor in what Joseph did, nor regarding the Magi who “saw the young child with Mary his mother” (Matt 2:11), nor regarding the shepherds who “found Mary, and Joseph, and the babe lying in a manger” (Luke 2:16).

3 — “Before they came together she was found to be with child”
The Evangelist’s aim is to prove that Christ was conceived in a virgin who had not known a man for two reasons:

1. To prove that the born One was not born by natural birth from parents like other people, but that his birth from a virgin is a proof of his divinity, since he was born of the Holy Spirit. This is what the angel expressed by saying: “For that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.” (Matt 1:20).

2. Because his birth from a virgin without human seed makes us believe that he did not inherit original sin. Thus he is able to redeem us, for since he is without sin he can die for sinners.
   Therefore the apostle’s focus was on the Virgin not having come together with a man before the birth of Christ, to prove his virginal birth. But that she did not come together with a man after his birth is a self-evident matter that does not need proof.

4 — “He did not know her until she had borne her firstborn son”
The phrase until, or “to” (until), applies to what precedes it, and does not mean its opposite afterwards. An example of this is the Scripture’s statement about Michal daughter of Saul the king: “And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.” (2 Samuel 6:23). And of course after she died she did not have a child.
The Lord Jesus’ saying: “And, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world” (Matt 28:20), and of course after the end of the world (He will remain with us). And likewise the Lord’s saying to Christ: “Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool” (Psalm 110). And of course after this He will remain at my right hand…
There are many examples of this type…
Thus the word “until” does not necessarily mean the opposite of what follows it.
So Joseph did not know Mary until she had borne her firstborn son. Nor after his birth did he know her either. Because if he had abstained from touching her before the birth of Christ out of chastity, how much more after his birth, and after he saw the miracles and the angels and the Magi and the prophecies fulfilled and he knew with certainty that he was conceived of the Holy Spirit, that he is called the Son of the Most High, that he is the Holy One, Emmanuel and the Savior.
He is the One in whom the prophecy of Isaiah the prophet was fulfilled, who said: “Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.” (Isa 7:14), and also: “For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace. Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end… ” (Isa 9:6–7). And perhaps this passage is what the angel quoted in his announcement to the Virgin (Luke 1:31–33).

5 — The phrase “his brothers”
The term “brother” in Jewish expression may indicate kinship, close as well as indicating the brother son of the father or mother or both. There are many examples of that, among them:

1. What was said about brotherhood between Jacob and his uncle Laban.
   The Scripture says about Jacob’s meeting Rachel: “And Jacob kissed Rachel, and lifted up his voice, and wept. And Jacob told Rachel that he was her father’s brother.” (Gen 29:10–12). Although her father is his uncle, the word uncle was repeatedly mentioned in this passage.
   Here the word “brother” was used to indicate close kinship. In the same style Laban spoke to Jacob when he asked him about his wages, saying to him: “Because thou art my brother, shouldest thou therefore serve me for nought?” (Gen 29:15). Thus Laban said about Jacob that he is his brother though he was his nephew.

2. Example of Abram and Lot
   Lot was the son of Abram’s brother “the son of Haran his brother” (Gen 11:31). Nevertheless the Scripture says about Lot’s captivity with the men of Sodom: “And when Abram heard that his brother was taken captive, he armed his trained servants…” (Gen 14:14). So he considered Lot his brother although he was his nephew. But it was close kinship.
   In the same manner it was said “brothers of Jesus” about the children of his cousin as we will show now.
   Who are the brothers of the Lord?
   When the Lord went to his country they marveled, saying: “Is not this the carpenter’s son? Is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? Are not all his sisters with us?” (Matt 13:54–56), (Mark 6:1–3).
   The holy apostle Paul mentions that he saw “James the Lord’s brother.” (Gal 1:19). This James is called James the Less (Mark 15:40) to distinguish him from James son of Zebedee. He is also called James son of Alphaeus (Matt 10:3). He was among the apostles as recorded in (Gal 1:19).
   The holy apostle Matthew mentions that at the Lord’s cross “many women were there beholding afar off… Among whom was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James and Joses, and the mother of Zebedee’s children.” (Matt 27:55–56). So who is Mary the mother of James and Joses? Is she the Virgin Mary? Is it reasonable that the Virgin gave birth to all these many children, and yet the Lord entrusted her on the cross to his disciple John? Surely her own children would have been more worthy of her if she had children…
   She is Mary wife of Cleophas or Clopas, whom John the Evangelist mentions: “Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene.” (John 19:25) — compare with (Matt 27:55–56).
   Therefore the brothers of Jesus are the sons of his cousin Mary wife of Cleopas or Alphaeus, the mother of James and Joses and the rest of the brothers. As for the difference between the name Alphaeus and the name Cleophas, it may be either a difference in pronunciation or, as Saint Jerome says: it is customary in Scripture for one person to have more than one name; for example, Reuel the father-in-law of Moses (Exod 2:18) is also called Jethro (Exod 3:1), Gideon is called Jerubbaal (Judg 6:32), and Peter is also called Simon and Cephas, and Thaddaeus is called Judas (Matt 10:3).

It is thus clear that Mary the mother of James and Joses is not the Virgin Mary. And the Scripture never called her by this name.

Notes

1. It is unreasonable that Mary the mother of Christ had all these children, and that the Lord entrusted her on the cross to John his disciple. Certainly her children would have been more appropriate to care for her if she had children…

2. We note that in the accounts of Joseph and Mary going to Egypt and returning, the name of any son of Mary other than “Jesus” is not mentioned (Matt 2:14, 20, 21). Likewise in the journey to Jerusalem at the age of twelve (Luke 2:43).

3. It is not true what some say that the “brothers of Jesus” are the sons of Joseph from another wife who became a widow by her death. The Scripture mentions that Mary wife of Clopas was present at the crucifixion and the burial of Christ as we have mentioned (Mark 15:47).

4. Here is a clear scriptural text in the prophecy of Ezekiel that supports the perpetual virginity of the Virgin. Ezekiel the prophet saw a gate closed toward the east. It was said that: “This gate shall be shut, it shall not be opened, and no man shall enter in by it; because the Lord, the God of Israel, hath entered in by it, therefore it shall be shut.” (Ezekiel 44:2). It is the womb of the Virgin from which the Lord entered, and it remained shut so that no other son entered by it.

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